why yes, I should be in bed

[angelgazing]

I'm not even going to try and pretend this is homework related. Whatever, like any of you all are somehow unaware of the fact that I'm the nerdiest nerd to ever nerd.

POSSESSIVE PROPER NOUNS

Specifically, possessive proper nouns when the proper noun in question ends with an "S", but isn't plural. Does the additional "S" get added? Does it not? Is it one of those "S vs. Z" things where a different correct answer exists depending on where in the world you actually are?

Does anyone but me actually care about this at all?

Why is English such a difficult language?

INQUIRING MINDS WANT TO KNOW.

To simplify (aka tl;dr):

[Poll #1611325]



And just to preemptively defend myself against the deep, overwhelming feeling of stupidity and shame, I have actually looked into this and seen arguments for and against both ways. I'm the worst grammar nerd ever. /o\

Comments

[hungrytiger11.livejournal.com]

Ah, hello. I sort of stumbled onto your lj,looking for fic.... but I taught English as a foreign language, and even teachers don't it all. But we have resource books to double check and find out. :) Michael Swan's Practical English Usage (4th ed.) says you can do it either way. When the possessive noun ends in s you can add just an apostrophe ('). This is especially common when using classical or literary references, like Socrates' (though you would likely still pronounce it as Socrates's) whether the second s is written or not), but, in fact, the apostrophe s ('s) is more common in general. So Eames's or Eames' both work. It is a matter of preference and topic.

[angelgazing.livejournal.com]

Hi! Thanks for weighing in! It's nice to get an answer from someone who has actually taught English. :D

I'm especially glad that you justified my refusal to add the s. Thanks!

And, uh, good luck with the fic hunting?